Question by Totally Cereus: Your opinion please?
Subject: Divorced male, age 56; one child; divorce occurred 1998.

History of absent/incapacitated father starting age 9; history of same-sex experiences age 13-18; history of some same-sex molestation (by unrelated individual) same period. Reports many advances by homosexual males. Ex-wife reports lack of sexual interest during 22 years of marriage despite her wish for more sexual contact, with several 3-6 year periods of celibacy; no reports of unfaithfulness by subject or ex-wife. Ex-wife reports wish for more active sexual involvement; also reports wish for additional children. Subject returned to mother’s home post-divorce. Son reports no dating/sexual contacts post-divorce; ex-wife reports return to dating approximately 14 months post-divorce and has remarried.

Subject history includes short-lived attempts at “counseling” (refuses to acknowledge this as therapy); history of violent outbursts slamming doors, fists through walls, etc.
Subject – homosexual/latent homosexual or simply repressed? Your opinions, please.
Edit: Severely homophobic individual.

Best answer:

Answer by Queen of Wands
He’s gay

Know better? Leave your own answer in the comments!

 

 

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